Guidance For Question Setters | And Markers For Years- 2021

Guidance For Question Setters

Guides for questioners and markers for English in all classes. English is a West Germanic language that was first spoken in medieval England but is now the most widely used language in the world. It is spoken as the first language by the majority population of several sovereign states, including the United States, the United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, Ireland, New Zealand, Singapore, Italy and a few countries in the Caribbean. It is the third most widely spoken local language in the world after Mandarin Chinese and Spanish. It is widely used as a second (2nd) language and is the official language of the European Union, many Commonwealth countries and the United Nations, as well as many world organizations.

1. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

Strategies and skills related to scanning, skimming, reading for guests, inferentiation (comprehension of context) comprehension test etc. if the MCQ number can be set for testing if. Each MCQ item will carry 0.5 mark. However, depending on the level of difficulty some item may have one (1) mark as well.

When preparing MCQ items, questioners will ensure that students need to apply some reading skills or techniques to be able to choose the right options. Depending on the level of the learners, items will be set to test learner's lower order thinking skills (knowing and understanding) as well as higher order and more critical thinking (analyzing, synthesizing, and evaluating). Use synonyms in questions to avoid direct quotes from the original passage. Make the questions a little round so that the students think.

For Example

• Text : The Great Wall of China, one of the greatest wonders of the world, was first built between 220- 226 BC.
• Question : When was the Great Wall first (1st) built? (Don't make this type of question. Student will just the answer from the question paper as 'was born' is common in both the text in the question paper and the answer.)
• Question : What was the initial construction period of the Great Wall? (This question is Okey as learners has to understand that 'was built' and/or 'construction period' are same.)
• Students will write the question number and then just write a/b/c/d which indicates the correct answer. Complete sentences from the question paper are not required.
• The some text can be used for guessing the meaning from the context and Question Answer (open ended and close ended).

Please Note The Following Points When Setting up MCQ Test Items

1. Phrase stems as clearly as possible. Changing questions can generate wrong answer from students who do understand the material.
2. Avoid redundant words and phrases in the stem. External details make a question more complex and less reliable.
3. Include any language in the stem that you need to repeat in each answer option.
4. Options should be similar in and structure
5. The number of answer options should not be more than four.
6. Distracters must be incorrect, but plausible. Try to include common faulty distractor options.
7. To make distracters more plausible, use word that is familiar to students.
8. If a recognized keyword appears in the correct answer, it should also appear in some or all of the confusing ones. Don’t let an oral clue shorten your exam.
9. Avoid using extreme or vague words in the answers. Always, sometimes and never use very common extreme words like vague words or phrases and can usually be the answer.
10. Avoid using All of the above or None of the above as an answer choice.                              (The following classification guidelines should be followed in MCQ design.)

 

MCQ for grades 6, 7 and 8
Altogether ten (10) MCQs will be set. Each MCQ will have 0.5 mark or (half mark) for a correct answer. There should be six (6) MCQs an vocabulary test (guessing meaning from the context) and four (4) MCQs on answering questions (scanning for specific information, search reading, deducing the meaning of unfamiliar words). Eight (8) MCQs as given in NCTB Simple Question. Thus the marks distribution will be:

• Vocabulary 0.5 x 6 = 3
• Questions   0.5 x 4 = 2
• Total                         = 5

Altogether seven (7) MCQs will be set. Each MCQ will have 1 (one) mark for correct answer. There will be two (2) MCQs on vocabulary test (guessing from the context and inferencing) and five (5) MCQs on answering questions (skimming, reading for main ideas and supporting details, reading to info meaning). Thus the marks distribution will be:

• Vocabulary 1 x 2 = 2
• Questions   1 x 5 = 5
• Total                      = 7

2. True/ False Questions

True/ False questions are usually used to measure the ability to identify whether a statement of truth is true. The questions are usually a declarative statement that the student must or must judge as true or false.

Follow the general guidelines below when writing true/ false items for your students:

1. Base the item on a single idea.
2. Write items that test an important idea.
3. Avoid lifting statements right from the text.
4. Make the statements a brief as possible.
5. Write clearly true or clearly false statements.
6. Try to avoid such words as all, always, never, only, nothing, and alone.
7. The use of words like more, less, important, unimportant, large, small, recent, old, tall, great, and so on, van easily lead to ambiguity.
8. State items positively. Negative statements may be difficult to interpret. This is especially true of statements using double negatives. If a negative word, such as "not" or "never" is used, be sure underlie or capitalize it.
9. Beware of detectable answer patterns.

3. Match The Parts of Sentences

There is no need for separate text lessons to match. The question itself will have a context after the texts of Part B and Part B have been properly matched. This column may contain A number of texts i. ii. iii, iv ........ and may be text in B column a, b. c, d ........  Students only match numbers in two columns, such as (in column A) i. ii. iii. iv etc. and a, b, c, d etc. (in column B). You can also use three (3) columns with texts to match.

4. Gap Filling With/ Without Clues

The text of the gap- filling activity is separate and complete. The text of this item will also have a meaningful context. There will be five gaps in the text. The gap can be used in the article, preparation or any other part of the passive speech as there are separate tests for it. A question setter will choose one particular item mentioned earlier to set a question and use a gap at the particular place. 

For Example- if the question setter wants to test the article then there will be a gap at the position of a, an, and the or before a noun that dose not take any article. For a question of three (3) marks, there will be six gaps in the text; for four (4), there will be eight (8) gaps; and for five (5) marks there will be ten gaps.

Follow the guidelines when writing gap filling test items:

1. Prepare a scoring key so that there are all acceptable answers for each item.
2. Prefer single word or short phrase answers.
3. Beware of open questions that invite unexpected and reasonable answers.
4. Make all the blanks of an equal length.
5. Avoid grammatical clues such as "an."
6. Place the blanks near the end of the statement. Try to present a complete or almost complete statement before responding.
7. Limit the number for blanks to one or two per sentence. Statements with too many blanks waste item as students figure out what is being asked.
8. If a numerical answer is called for, indicate the units (e.g. currency) in which it is to expressed. 

5. Close Test With/ Without Clues

Close examination is a blank activity that assesses students' comprehension of vocabulary and knowledge of paragraphs or grammatical items in the text. In close tests there are recurrent gaps at every fourth (4th), fifth (5th), sixth (6th) or seventh (7th) word. If the first gap, for example, is used at the fifth (5th) place, all through the text the gap will be at the fifth (5th) place. Unlike the gap filling activity that tests a particular grammar item (as appropriate preposition, article, pronoun, or verb) it is a test for vocabulary (key words) in general. This is why gap filling activity in the reading section is usually a close test. In contrast, gap filling activity is merely a grammar test item.

A close test with fifth (5th) marks will have ten gaps (5 for each gap). Considering the level of difficulty close tests without clues a grade ten (10) can have five (5) gaps (1 mark for each gap).

In case of answering the question, an examinee does not need to reproduce the text in the answer script. It is enough to write the missing word with the corresponding question number. 

However, the whole text with suitable words in the gaps will neither earn any extra credit for discredit.

6. Information Transfer

Depending on the difficulty and length of the text, data can be transferred from the same text and true/ false questions can be set. However, if the text is too small, do not use the some text for both the tests as the content will be inadequate for sitting questions. Make sure there is no overlapping or duplication in the question you set. Alternatively you can use two different texts for these two test items.

The marks allocated for information transfer is 1 x 5 = 5 or 0.5 x 10 = 5 (depending on the level of difficulty)

7. Substitution Table

It's a grammar test item. It tests whether students can form grammatically correct sentences by following certain structures/s. It's different from matching item. In matching there might be equal number of texts in each column in a table and students need to make sentences using a text from each column. In the case of designing the test item, the questioner can write the texts in column A in such a way that the hierarchical arrangement of the sequence creates a context. 

In a substitution table, depending on marks, there will be four or five (4 or 5) texts in the left column, one or two (1 or 2) grammar words that shows she form in the middle column, and extensions at the right column. Every meaningful sentence made using the text and the logical word will have merit.

8. Gap Filling With Right Forms of Verbs

Sentences will be written in the essay on the question paper. Some verbs can be omitted or given in parentheses without any form. A list of verbs will be provided separately in a box if verbs are omitted completely from the text. Students will use the verb in place of their correct forms according to the context of the work and other grammatical considerations. 

Alternatively the base form of the verb can be provided in the first parentheses.

Students will write the correct answer with the question number. 

However, if someone uses the text with words in the space, it should be taken as the correct answer.

9. Changing Sentences

A text be designing with a certain context. The first sentence will contain instructions on how to change them in a few sentences of the text. Depending on the marks in the test item, students will be asked to change five or ten (5 or 10) sentences. Students will simply write the changed sentence as their answer. They can write the changed sentence in the given text.

10. Rearranging 

Measures the ability of rearranged students to organize some isolated sentences into coherent and coherent texts. Use ten (10) detached sentences for classes six, seven, and eight (6, 7, and 8) (See the sample questions for these grades). For SSC, Ss will rearrange eight parts of a story/ passage (See the simple question for SSC). Test sequence of the answer very. If the answer varies and each variation has a full meaning, redesign the test. Use connecting word/ sentence connectors to connect and maintain consistency with text. Students do not need to reproduce the text in their answer scripts. If they sort the corresponding serial of writing correctly (such as b. d. a, f or v, iii, vi. i ..... etc), they will get full credit. Please note that the purpose of the test is to organize the sentences here, not to copy the texts from the questionnaire.

However, if a student comes up with a sentence in random writing, there is no need to punish him. Students will get credits for the correct answers. The test has nothing to do with the texts used in the previous test items.

11. Writing Summary

Use a text not exceeding 150 to 200 words for classes six to eight (6 to 8) and not exceeding 300 words for classes nine-ten (9-10) in the question paper. Students will create a summary using one-third of the words in the given lesson. For example, if the original text contains 150 words, students will create a 50- word summary. 

However, 5% plus minas is okay. This answer should be written in random text, not in individual sentences. There is no question of counting short sentences. So do not mention in the questionnaire how many lines or sentences will be used to create the summary. The number of words used here is important. Make sure they are writing in their own language, not copying specific sentences from the text. Practice avoiding examples or explanations when writing briefly. A new text should be given to create the summary. No text used in previous test items can be used here.

12. Writing a paragraph answering questions

Make sure while answering questions your students will be guide to write a well structured paragraph. In other words, if the students answer the question correctly, there will be a paragraph of appropriate sentence box to follow the argument/ idea to support the subject sentence and the decision to summarize the content and what is said in the body. There cannot be any new ideas in the conclusion.

However, if there are five (5) questions to answer, it does not mean that students will write only five sentences. They will use sentences at their discretion but the whole paragraph will answer the question. If there are ten (10) marks for this item, learners should be able to make at least ten (10) sentences. The word limit for classes six-seven (6-7) is 150 words, for class eight (8), it is 170 words, and for nine-ten (9-10) it is 200 words at least. 10% plus minus can be accepted. Keep an eye on the content rather then the mechanical calculation of sentences. 

Assess the paragraph from different aspects such as grammar, ideas, organisattion of ideas, communication, punctuation, and spelling. Do not evaluate in paragraph only from the point of view of grammatical accuracy. Regarding the composition writing in paper two (2) (which is structurally an essay) the word limit will be 250 for classes six-seven (6-7), 300 for class eight (8), and for nine-ten (9-10).

13. Completing a Story

The question paper will start with a story. Students will continue the story and complete it. The answer will very here. Completing a story when given at classes six-eight (6-8) should be more guided (See sample question for class 6-7.) Where the question does not just start a story but provides some clues for the expansion of ideas. Students will complete the story following the clues. It is a good idea for students to have no word limit when evaluating a paragraph from different angles such as grammar, concept, communication, organization, etc.; Don’t just evaluate the paragraph from the point of view of grammatical accuracy. 

Furthermore, the use of solidarity (interconnection of sentences) and solidarity (transition from one concept to another) is important here. The word limit here would be like writing a paragraph.

14. Open- Ended Questions

Open ended or essay format question are excellent for measuring higher level cognitive learning and overall comprehension of a reading text/passage. They allow students to select materials for their feedback, organize their thoughts in a logical way, and present their ideas on a given topic. Overall, these types of experimental questions allow teachers to test for a broader understanding of a reading item.

• Make sure the test question clearly states the answer you want from the student. For example, "Discuss the results of environmental pollution" is a weak test question. However, "Describe the possible effects of environmental pollution on the people of the coastal areas of Bangladesh" or what are the causes and effects of environmental pollution on the people of the coastal areas of Bangladesh? This is a much better test question, as it clearly gives the student something to compare and contrast in a concentrated area.
• If you are looking to test comprehension, a good opening line for the test question is, 'Explain the following ...."
• If you are seeking to test the student's ability to analyze a concept, a good opening phrase fir your test question is, 'compare and contrast ...... "
• Don't give students the option to pick 2 or 3 questions from among five (5). This can add confusion for students and complexity for the teacher during grading in the classroom. This type of test format often compromises the validity and reliability of the test.
• Here you are sitting recalling questions, design the question in a way so that examinees do not have opportunity to pick answers by matching the vocabulary in the question and answer.

 

The following classification guidelines need to be followed to decide the questions in the question setter :

• Grades 6-8: There will be five (5) open ended questions each bearing 2 marks for the correct answer. There will be two (2) questions fir recalling answer, 2 questions to check students' understanding, and 1 (one) question for analyzing information.
• Grade 9-10 : There will be five (5) open ended questions each bearing 2 marks for the correct answer. There will be 1 (one) question to recall answer, 2 questions to check students' understanding, 1 (one) question for analysing information or evaluating something. 

15. Dialogue Writing

In real life, a dialogue is the exchange of information. This should be reflected in the dialogue written by the test provider. A dialogue cannot be a mere combination of fragmented sentences or snappy phrases or collocation like Hi/ Hello/ Yes/ No/ Very/ Good/ Thank you/ Welcome/ See you/ Bye etc. The full sentence must contain some questions and answers. A dialogue has to contain at least five (5) questions and their answers or ten (10) exchange of statements including some questions in full sentences other then greetings.

16. Writing Letters/ E-mails

If it is informal letter, content is important. If it is an official letter, both the content and the form are important. The official letter can be written in British style (Indicated for a place at the beginning of each paragraph, date in the top right corner, name in the bottom right corner) It can also be written in American style (All paragraphs in a line without indenting, date name everything at the left hand corner). An envelope or stamp photo is not required but the address can be written.

However, if a student provides them, it will not earn any additional credit or penalty.

For e-mails, students enter the email id, subject and content as incorrect genuine emails. Students should be taught in class that there should be sufficient margins in the answer script. However, if there is no margin in the answer script, there will be no penalty for any examinee. Margin has nothing to do with the evaluation of the answer.

The word limit should be mentioned in the question paper. Again the word limit is 150 words for classes 6-7, 170 words for class 8, and 200 words for classes 9-10 with 10% plus minus.

17. Describing Graphs and Charts

Graph should be authentic. Teachers can collect charts from various sources such as newspapers, magazines, books or the internet. Alternatively, teachers can use authentic data and create simple charts by themselves. Specific language skills are required to describe graphs or charts. 

Graphs and charts presented in the textbook show it. An indicator of answer scripts should monitor whether those languages ​​are used. Answers will include the written presentation of data shown in the graph following by a concluding remark. A word limit should be specified to describe a graph or chart of a question setter. Do not ask students to create a graph on the answer sheet. They will simply describe it.

What is The Difference Between Seen and Unseen Compromises

Visible and Unseen Compromises

The compromises seen and unseen are: Reading is important because it develops the mind. It needs to be practiced as a muscle of the mind. Written is a way of understanding the word, the mind enhances its skills and helps in developing language skills. The primary department has organized a seen and unseen passage reading to help students develop the habit of reading with perfection and sense. III and IV. Students were asked to read a seen and an unseen passage in the respective classroom.

They were simultaneously judged by their English language teachers. The competition has given students a platform to demonstrate their speech skills and make them aware of how they can make their studies more effective.

Definition of Comprehension 

The definition of comprehension is : The power of understanding and comprehending names. The definition test is a set of questions and answers based on a given story or paragraph to find out how much students understand after reading a story or paragraph.

Students may have a deeper study and perception of the comprehensible paragraph given in one or more paragraphs. The main purpose of this activity is to test the reading ability and intellectual ability of the students.

The definition is divided into two parts.

1. Seen Comprehension
2. Unseen Comprehension

Things to keep in mind when answering comprehension:

• The first paragraph should be read carefully several times.
• The answers to the questions have to depend on the given paragraph.
• The answer to the question should be appropriate.
• It is better to write the answer in your own language.

There are several paragraphs in the English textbook to help you understand the answers to the questions first:

Seen Comprehension

1. A Family 

This is Jamil. Jamil is from USA. He is eight years old. He's in class three. He lives in a beautiful house with his family. His father name is Abdul Bari. Her father is sixty five years old. He is a businessman. Rashida Begum is his mother. Her mother is forty five years old.She is a housewife. He has a little sister. Her name is Rehana. She's five years old. She's in class one. Jamil and Rehana like their grandparents very much. Sometimes Jamil and Rehana play carom and ludu with their grandparents. Her grandparents often reads stories their.

2. Bedroom

This is Rana's room. There are one door and two windows in it. There is a bad near one window. There are two pillows in it. There is a shelf in one corner. There are books on the shelf.

3. Months & Year 

There are twelve months in a year. Every year has three hundred and sixty-five days. There are thirty days each in April, June, September and November. January, March, May, July, August, October and December each have thirty-one (31) days. February is twenty-eight days, but in a leap year it is nineteen days. Every fourth year is a leap year.

4. Friday 

Today is Friday. The students are going for their picnic. Mrs Rehana Begum is going with them. The bus is ready. The students ate getting on the bus. They are talking many things with them. They are talking bread, butter and bananas for breakfast. They also talking rice and meat. They are talking cold drinks too. Mina is carrying a camera.

5. A Cowboy 

There is a cowboy under a tree. He is standing. He has a stick in his hand. His cows are in the field. They are eating grass. There is a forest near the filed. There are many trees in the forest.

6. Jamal Poultry-Farm 

Mr Jamal has a big poultry-farm. It is in a village. The farm has one hundred and ten hens, eighty-five chickens and twelve cocks. There is a fence around the farm. There are four hen-houses inside the fence. The hens live in the hen-houses. They lay eggs. Then they sit on the eggs. After twenty-one days little chicks come out of the eggs. They soon grow into chickens.

7. Hospital 

This is a hospital. Mrs Amina works here. There are three wards and fifty beds in it. Mrs Amina works in the children's ward. There are twenty sick children in her ward. Mrs Amina is now at work. She is looking after sick children. She is giving medicine to a child.

8. Eid Day

Today is Eid day. Mr Ali and Kamal are standing outside the house. They are wearing new shirts. They will go to the Eidgah. Babar is going to the Eidgah. He is wearing and old short. They see Babar. Babar is their neighbour's son.

9. Two Friends

Mamun and Kamal are friends. They are pupils. They have pets. Mamun has a cat, but Kamal has a dog. Mamun's cat is white. Its name is pussy. Kamal's dog is black, but it has white spots. Its name is tom.

10. A Greedy Farmer

A farmer has a goose. Everyday the goose lays an egg. Everyday the farmer sell the egg. He gets some money. 

One day he says, "I'm a smart man. I'll get all the eggs at a time. Then I'll sell all the eggs and become very rich." Soon he cuts the belly of the goose with a knife. But alas! There are no eggs. The farmer becomes very sad.

Part-A : Unseen Comprehension

1. Need Food

We need food. We must eat to live. Food helps us growing. Food gives us energy. We eat a variety of foods in different tomes. In the morning we have breakfast. We usually eat bread, puffed rice, eggs and tea or milk for breakfast. At noon we have lunch. For lunch we usually have rice, vegetable, chicken, beef, fish, curry and lentil. In the afternoon, we usually have tea and biscuits or some snakes. At night we have our dinner. For dinner, we usually eat rice, curry, vegetable, fruit and lentil. Sometimes we eat sweets after dinner. English people call dessert.

2. Summer 

It was summer. The day was very hot. A crow became very thirsty. The crow flew away in search of water. But it didn't find water anywhere. At last it saw a jar. It flew down to it. But the water was under the jar. So it couldn't drink water. It tried to overturn the jar, but failed. At last the crow saw some pebbles near the jar. It picked up the pebbles on by one and drooped them into the jar. The water in the jar came up. The crow drank water and flew away.

3. Lion and Mouse

Once upon a time there lived a lion in the forest. It was big and strong. I was asleep one day. A mouse was playing nearby. 

Suddenly the rat went to the lion's nose. The lion got up and grabbed the mouse. The lion got angry and said, I will kill you. The rat was scared and wanted his life, "Sir, please let me go. I can help you one day! "You're so young? How can you help me?" The lion laughed. Leave it alone. The hunters set a trap to catch the animals. He tried to get out, but couldn't. He roared and roared. The mouse roared and left quickly. The mouse said, "Sir, please wait. I will help you." The rat began to cut the rope of the trap with its sharp teeth. After a while the lion was released. She said happily, "Thanks little mouse."

4. Holiday 

It's different Friday. Friday is the weekly holiday or the weekend. On Friday, Smile go to mosque with his grandfather at noon. In the afternoon he and Kaya occasionally go to visit uncles and aunts. They love playing with their cousins there. In the evening, Sagor watches TV or read story books or draw pictures. He goes to bed at 10 o'clock.

5. Unity

A farmer had three sons. Her sons were not in good turn with each other. They often quarreled among themselves. So, the old farmer was unhappy with them. The elderly farmer wanted to teach them a very good lesson. So, he hit upon a plan. He called all asked them to bring some sticks. According to the father's order, the boys collected some sticks and took them to him. The farmer advised the sons to tie the sticks in a bundle. The farmer then told each of his sons to break the bundle. Every of them tried to break the bundle of sticks but failed. This time the old farmer asked them to unite the bundle. The sons did it at once. Then he gave a stick to each of his sons could break their sticks easily. The farmer then told his sons that no one could harm them if they were united like a bundle of sticks. He also warned them if they quarreled again and remained separate, they would break down like the single sticks. He taught his sons the importance of unity. The sons realized and promised to remain united.

6. A Frogs

There is a pond full of frogs. Most of them often throw water out of their heads. One day some naughty boys were playing beside the pond. When they heard the frog's croaking, the boys became curious and decided to make fun. They collected some stones and started throwing towards the frogs, when the frogs raised their beads the boys targeted at them with the stones. Many of the frogs were injured and some of them died. In the meantime the leader of the frog raised itself out of water. He told the boys not to make fun with them. Because their fun was causing death to the innocent frogs. The boys got ashamed and stopped throwing stones. They repented their unwise activity. But it was too late because many of the frogs already died.

7. A Thirsty Crow

A crow was very thirsty. He/She flew from place to place in search of water. But their was not a drop of water anywhere. All the ponds and ditches dried up. The crow flew long distances and was tried. He left the hope of his life. Suddenly he saw a pitcher under a tree. The crow flew down and san on the pitcher. 

He looked into the pitcher. The pitcher had a little water. But the crow could not reach to it. He became very frustrate. He was at a loss what to do. He looked around and saw some pebbles. Then an excellent idea came up to his mind. He picked up the pebbles one by one with is back. He dropped them into the pitcher. Soon water came in the mouth of the pitcher. The crow ate the water and flew away happily. So, we learn from the story that we should never be frustrated in any situation.

8. A Garment Worker

I 'm Jerry. I'm a garment worker in London. I'm eighteen years old. Eight years ago my family came to London from China. I was in class four then. But there was a famine in China that year. There were no crops, on food and no work in the North. So our family came to London. My father was a labourer. He died by an accident. We were helpless. My uncle Smith helped us. He took me to a garment factory in London City area. I now work there. My younger brother is John. He's seven and goes to a Govt. Primary School. We lived with our mother. She stitches Nakshi Kanthas at home and sells them to others. We live in a very small house at Beijing. My factory is two kilometer away from my house. In the morning, I shall with many other workers. Dome friends go by bus or by rickshaw. But I go on foot. My work is from 8 A.M. to 4 P.M. In my free time, I like to go to English Cinema. But I don't have enough time or money. So I often work overtime till 8 P.M. Thus I can earn more money.

9. Early The Morning 

On weekdays Sunny gets up 6 o'clock in the morning. He first says his prayers. Then he goes to his grandfather and studies English and Spanish with him. He has breakfast at 8 o'clock. Then he gets dressed. He puts on his school dress and shoed. He leaves home for school at 9 o'clock. School starts at 10 o'clock.

In the evening, Sunny does his homework. He then spent some time with his grandparents. She tells them stories about their school and friends. He has dinner at 9 p.m. After dinner he sometimes watches TV goes to bed at 10 p.m.

Part-B : Unseen compromises 

10. The Famous Painter

I visited the famous painter Sultan's house and saw his paintings. They were amazing! Then I saw the Sultan's boat on the banks of the river Chitra. Both the boat and the river were beautiful! I went to 'Sultan Mela' in the afternoon. I also like the city of Narail very much. It is a small town but very green, quiet and serene. The people here are very friendly. I went to my grandmother for one day. The whole day passed very quickly. Now, I'm back home but I'm missing everything in Narail.

11. A leap Year

There are 365 days in a year. A leap year lasts 366 days. That means one more day of the leap year. Do you know what a leap year is? Every fourth year is a leap year. Twelve months a year. Thirty days in some months, thirty-one days elsewhere. There are only eight days in a month. However, every fourth year, that is, in a leap year, this month has 29 days instead of 28 days. Do you know what it is? Okay, this February.

12. Birthday

Sabina got a wall clock on her birthday. Her uncle gave it to her. But she doesn't know how to tell time. So she took it to school to his teacher.

Sabina  : Teacher, can you please teach us how to tell the time? 

Teacher: Of course I would be happy. Look at this watch. It has two arms. Short one hour hand and long one minute hand. It shows an hour if the long arm is twelve and the short arm is a number. Look at the clock. The short hand is on one side and the long hand is above twelve. It's one o'clock.

13. Human Diet

Human diet was estimated to cause perhaps around 35% of cancers in a human epidemiological analysis by Richard Doll and Richard Peto in 1981. These cancers are caused by carcinogens that are present in food naturally or as contaminants. As the fungus grows, contaminated foods may contain mycotoxins such as aflotoxins, which are found in contaminated grains and peanuts. Other carcinogens identified in the diet include heterocyclic amines produced in meat when cooked at high temperatures, polyaromatic hydrocarbons in waste meat, and nitrosamines in smoked fish and nitrotamine.

Anti carcinogens that may help prevent cancer can also be found in many food especially fruits and vegetable. Antioxidants are important groups of compounds that many help remove potentially harmful chemical. However, it is often difficult to identify specific components of the diet that increase or decrease the risk of cancer after many meals, such as beef steak and broccoli, contain low concentrations of both carcinogens and anti carcinogens. 

14. The First Day of Boishakh

Panta ilish is a traditional platter of Panta bhat. It is steamed rice soaked in water and served with friend hilsha slice, often together with dried fish, pickles, lentil, green chilies and onion. It is a popular food on the first day of Boishakh.

The people of Bangladesh are very fond of sweet. Almost all Bangladeshi women prepare some traditional sweet. 'Pie,' a type of sweet made from rice flour, sugar syrup, molasses and sometimes milk, is a popular food that is loved by the whole population. During winter Pitha Utsab, meaning pitha festival is organized by different of people.

When good news like birth, marriage, preaching etc. is received, sweets are distributed among the close relatives.

Most of the sweets in Bangladesh are based on milk. The common ones are Rasgala, Sandesh, Rasmalai, Gulap Jamun, Kal Jamun Cham-Cham etc. There are different types of sweet preparations. Sweet is therefore an important part of the daily life of the people of Bangladesh.

Part-C : Unseen compromises

15. The Great City

The city of Kathmandu was named after Kasthamandap temple that stands Durbar Square. In Sanskrit, kast means "wood" and mandapa means "covered shelter". This temple, associated with Maru Satal, was built in 1596 by Raja Lakshmi Narsingh Malla. The (2) two-storey structure is made entirely of wood, and uses no iron nails nor supports. According to legend, all the wood used to make this pagoda was found in a tree.

Ancient manuscripts refer to Kathmandu as the Kastamandapa metropolis in Mandalay, Nepal. The metropolis means "great city". Buddhist priests still swear that the city is called "Kastmandapa". In medieval times, the city was sometimes called Kantipur. The name is derived from two Sanskrit words-kanti and pur. "Kanti" is one of the names of the Goddess Lakshim, and "pur" means place. Thus Kathmandu is also known as Kasthamandap.

Among the indigenous peoples, Kathmandu is known as Yen Desha, and Patan and Bhaktapur are known as Yala Desha and Khoyapa Desha. "Yen" is an acronym for Yambu, which refers to the northern half of Kathmandu.

16. Mother Teresa

Mother Teresa, the servant of humanity, was born on August 26, 1910 in Macedonia. She was the youngest of the three siblings. At the age of twelve (12) she felt an urge to spread the love of Christ and so she decided to become a missionary. In 1928 Mother Teresa left home and joined the sisters Loreto, an Irish community of nuns which had missions in India. After a few months of training, Mother Teresa moved to India. On May 24, 1931, she/he took her initial vows as Nun. She then taught geography and religion at Mother Teresa St. Mary's High School in Kolkata. But poverty in Calcutta inspired him and he left the convent in 1948 to work for the poor. She/He established this house for the dying and sick helpless in Calcutta and named it 'Nirmal Hriday'.

She, along with her fellow nuns, gathered the dying and bought them to this home Mother Teresa received the Nobel Prize for the peace in 1979 for the love and compression for humanity.

17. Marconi's Radio Tour

Marconi was an Italian inventor. He is best known for inventing radio. He was born on April 18, 1874 in Bologna, Italy. His mother was from Ireland and his father was an Italian landowner. Marconi studied at the Livomore Technical Institute and at the University of Bologna. In 1890, he Company in London. In 1898, Marconi successfully transmitted singles across the English Channel. It was a radio journey and in 1901 he made the connection from England to Newfoundland in the United States. Marconi's system was adopted by the Royal Navy. His wireless telegraph was widely used during the First World War, he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1909. He died in 1937.

18. John Donne

John Donne was born in 1573 in London. His father was a rich merchant. He had name and fame in his circle. But he died in 1576. He was at first educated as Catholic. He entered Oxford in 1584 and left it in 158. Then he studied at Cambridge for there years. He was removed to London in 1591. He then entered Linclon's In to study law in 1592. When Donne came of age, he had enough luck. Donne travelled Italy. Spain and on the continent between 1594 and 1996. He joined Essex Expedition to Cabiz in 1590. During this time he wrote several poems. His lyrical poetry was basically the result of these years. He started composing his great prose work ‘Pseudo Martiz’ in 1609. It was printed in 1601. In 1610 he wrote a satirical piece of prose.

19. George Washington

George Washington was the first President of The USA. He was born in 1732 in Virginia. His family grew tobacco in their home in Virginia. When he was twenty (20) years old, he took over these estates and lived a comfortable life. In 1752, France and Britain started war. Then he left his estates and joined the English force. Georgie soon made a good name for himself as a brilliant officer. In 1773, an unpleasant event known as the Boston Tea Party took place between the Americans and the British. Thirteen colonies joined into a congress in 1774. In 1775, some English troops invaded and a war began. In 1776, the colonies formally declared themselves independent. Treaty was signed between America and British in 1783. When England and France made peace, he went to his home in Virginia to live a happy life. In 1789, he became the first president of the United States in Washington.

20. Journey to The Moon

Neil A. Armstrong commanded the Gemini eight (8) mission and became the first person to walk on the moon as commander of Apollo 11. He was born on August 5, 1930, in Wapakonet, Ohio. He holds a bachelor’s degree from Purdue University and a master’s degree from the University of Southern California.

Armstrong joined the Navy and flew as a navy aviator from 1949 to 1952. On 1955 he joined the National Advisory Committee for Flight Propulsion Laboratory and later was transferred to the High Speed Flight Station at Edwards Air Force Base. As a citizen pilot in California, NACA and NASA. Among the aircraft he tested was an X-15 rocket.

On July 16, 1969, Apollo eleven (11) astronauts Neil Armstrong, Buzz Aldrin and Mike Collins departed for the moon. Four (4)  days later, Armstrong and Aldrin landed their Lunar Module in the moon's Sea of tranquilly. Armstrong and then Aldrin, stepped on to the surface and they became the first humans to leave their footprints in the lunar dust. They explored the surface and gathered moon rocks for over two (2) hours. The next day they moved away from the surface and rejoined the mother ship that circled Collins.

21. Breakfast 

Oops! I'm Alex. I'm British. I take my breakfast around eight inthe morning. On weekdays, I usually eat a mug of milk, cereal and banana tea or coffee for my breakfast. 

Sometimes I take bread and butter, cheese, marmalade and omelette or egg fry. I also drink juice. Orange juice is my favourite. I like apple juice, too. On weekends, I don't take breakfast. I take early lunch.

Conclusion

Reading or understanding the above texts well will help you to solve any problem correctly in English. Make sure you save this guide for your future reference and whenever you want to learn a seen unseen compromises that helps you solve that kind of problem.

Frequently Asked Questions on Seen and Unseen Comprehension

What are the benefits of reading comprehension?

Answer: The purpose of reading is to understand - to get the meaning from the written text. ... One of the main goals of reading comprehensible instruction, therefore, is to help students develop knowledge, skills and experience if they are to be competent and enthusiastic readers.

What are hidden unseen passages?

Answer: There is a saying, the Old Testament conceals, and the New Testament reveals. There are many such things because they were mostly for rituals. Tents and rituals were rich in such teachings.

What are the differences between comprehension and summary?

Answer: The difference between comprehension and summary is that comprehension is the understanding of the main points of the text. When the summary refers to the information discussed in the article in a short version only.

What is difference between seen and unseen passages?

Answer: Every time I read my syllabus - "Invisible Passage", a question would arise in my head, "What is the difference between seen and unseen passage?", Of course, without a clear literal meaning.

And so finally, I’ve come across the fundamental difference between unseen and seen passages. And here I am, sharing it with you!

Before entering it, I would like to brief you on the comprehension of reading because both the unseen and the seen fall under the passage.